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Share some MCSE MB6-893 exam questions and answers below. You are creating a parent budget plan that will consist of budget amounts for all departments.You then need to create associate budget plans and link them to the parent budget.Before you can create the associate budget plans, which two steps must be complete? Each correct an-swer presents part of the solution. A. The budget plan priority must be selected on the budget plan creation. B. The budget organization hierarchy must have at least two levels. C. The budget planning process that you select must be set up for associated budget plans. D. The individual preparing the budget plan needs appropriate permissions to create an associate budget plan. Answer: AC
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template. B. Decide which matrix fields to creat. C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process. D. Decide which fields to use for the header. E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet. Answer: ABD
You are the director of finance.You are starting to create budgets for the fiscal year and want to generate budget plans from source information.Which three options can you choose from in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Generate budget plan from general ledger. B. Generate budget plan from fixed assets C. Generate budget plan from forecast positions D. Generate budget plan from yearly sales E. Generate budget plans from yearly purchases Answer: BDE
You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed? A. the dimensions on the transfer B. the amount of the transfer C. the date of the transfer D. the employee requesting the transfer Answer: C
You are setting up the budgeting module for your employer and are given a list of budget codes needed in the system. You want to create a "Preliminary" budget code but are unable to select it on the "budget Codes" form. Which configuration key enables "Preliminary" and "Apportionments" budget types? A. General Ledger – advanced II configuration key B. Budget control configuration key C. General Ledger configuration key D. Public Sector configuration key Answer: A
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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-066 exam questions and answers below. Your Data Guard environment has two remote physical standby databases. Client applications use the local naming method to connect to the primary database instance.You want applications to automatically connect to the new primary database instance in case of a switchover or a failover. Which will fulfill this requirement? A.Create a database service on each standby database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database rote is PRIMARY, modify the connection description used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name. B.Create a database service on the primary database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database role is PRIMARY, modify the connection descriptors used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name. C.Set the INSTANCE_NAME parameter identically on all databases; modify the connection descriptor on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name. D.Set the DB_NAME and DB_UNIQUE_NAME identical on all databases, modify the connection descriptors on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database using that service name. Answer: A
You are required to change the Data Guard Configuration protection mode from MAXPERFORMANCE to MAXAVAJLABILITY using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control. Which two are true about this change? A.If the primary database cannot write its redo to at least one synchronized standby database, then the protection level remains unchanged. B.The primary database instance will remain up and running, if it cannot write redo to at least one synchronized standby database. C.Transactions will not commit until all redo data needed to recover those transactions are written to the online redo log, and to the standby redo log on at least one synchronizes standby database. D. Fast start failover can be enabled when making the chance. E. Real time apply will be automatically turned on. Answer: BC
Which four database parameters might be affected by or influence the creation of standby databases? A.DB_NAME B.ARCHIVE_LAG_TARGET C.COMPATIBLE D.DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT E.DB_UNIQUE_NAME F.FAL_SERVER G.STANDBY_ARCH1VE_DEST Answer: A, D, E, F
Which two statements are true for Data Guard environments with multi-tenant databases? A.DB_UNIQUE_NAME must be specified differently for each pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database. B.Each pluggable database within a multi-tenant physical standby database has a minimum of one associated Oracle Net service name. C.Each pluggable database within a multi-tenant physical standby has one MRP background process running during redo apply. D.A pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database can have a different open mode than the container database E.A pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database can have a different database role than the container database. Answer: A, D
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Share some 11g 1Z0-052 exam questions and answers below. Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of backups that can be performed on the database? A.You can perform online whole database backups. B.You can perform offline whole database backups. C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations. D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open. Answer: B
Note the functionalities of various background processes: 1: Perform recovery at instance startup. 2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails. 3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails. 4: Dynamically register database services with listeners. 5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout. 6: Cleanup unused temporary segments. 7: Record the checkpoint information in control file. Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process? A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5 B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6 C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7 D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4 Answer: B
Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache? A.The buffer is currently being accessed. B.The buffer is empty and has not been used. C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process. D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block contents on the disk. Answer: A
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for: 1: Session memory for the shared server 2: Buffers for I/O slaves 3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations A.Large Pool B.Redo Log Buffer C.Database Buffer Cache D.Program Global Area (PGA) Answer: A
You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider the steps that will be performed later when you open the database: 1: SGA is allocated. 2: Control file is read. 3: Redo log files are read. 4: Instance recovery is started. 5: Background processes are started. 6: Data files are checked for consistency. 7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read. Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur? A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4 B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4 C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6 D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6 Answer: A
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Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server? A. enrollment profile B. enrollment terminal C. enrollment url D. enrollment selfsigned Answer: A
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.) A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size. B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA. C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive. D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size. E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive. Answer: A, E
Which equation describes an elliptic curve? A. y3 = x3 + ax + b B. x3 = y2 + ab + x C. y4 = x2 + ax + b D. y2 = x3 + ax + b E. y2 = x2 + ax + b2 Answer: D
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.) A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically. B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device. C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device. D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device. E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of device. F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically. G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device. Answer: C, E, G
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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam questions and answers below. Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network? A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks. B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated. C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device. D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200. Answer: D
Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address? A. vmac-weighted B. dedicated-vmac-mode C. shortest-path and weighting D. host-dependent Answer: D
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.) A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC. B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity. C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity. D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set. E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC. Answer: A, D
Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true? A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed. C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence. D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration. Answer: A
Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.) A. port profile B. DVS C. data center D. folder E. vCenter IP address F. VM port group Answer: B, C, D
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Share some CCNP Collaboration 300-080 exam questions and answers below. Which three network conditions and equipment should you avoid to ensure a high-quality Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose three.) A. network hubs B. Layer 3 switches C. duplex mismatch connections D. 10/100 access ports E. high utilization link with QoS F. network loops G. redundant network trunks Answer: A,C,F
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress? A. show call statistics video B. show call statistics all C. show call statistics detail D. show call statistics video detail Answer: D
How does an IP Phone react upon initilization, if there is no CTL and ITL files present on the device? A. The phone downloads only the files that are signed to that device. B. The phone blindly trusts the next series of downloaded files. C. The file matches the signature against the files on TFTP. D. The phone displays the message, Unprovisioned. Answer: D
When identifying Cisco TelePresence Endpoint traffic characteristics, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Latency, jitter, and loss are measured in a round-trip fashion. B. Latency, jitter, and loss are measured unidirectionally. C. Latency and loss are measured at a packet level, based on RTP header sequence numbers and time stamps. D. Latency and jitter are measured at a packet level, based on RTP header sequence numbers and time stamps. E. Jitter is measured at a video frame level, by measuring the arrival time of the video frame versus the expected arrival time. F. Jitter is measured at a packet level, by measuring the arrival time of the packet versus the expected arrival time. Answer: B,C,E
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information? A. The DHCP scope is exhausted. B. The DHCP server is not reachable. C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet. D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined. Answer: D
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