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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below. A customer has LUNs that are being accessed through iSCSI. The applications have experienced increased LUN latency over the last couple of days. Which two components should you review to determine what caused the rise in latency? (Choose two.) A. node CPU utilization B. FC switch performance C. Ethernet network performance D. cluster management switch performance Answer: A,C
You have created a storage virtual machine named SVM1 with a NetBIOS name of FILES1 and you have successfully joined the Active Directory domain. You have created a CIFS share called SHARE1 and have given read/write access to all users. Network connectivity has been verified. To which path should the users be mapping? A. \\SHARE1\FILES1 B. \\FILES1\SHARE1 C. \\SVM1\FILES1 D. \\FILES1\SVM1 Answer: B
Which two methods would be used to change root-data partitioning on an FAS2500? (Choose two.) A. OnCommand System Manager B. command line interface C. System Setup D. OnCommand Unified Manager Answer: B,C
Which NetApp management tool configures AutoSupport for nodes in a cluster? A. OnCommand System Manager B. ConfigAdvisor C. OnCommand Performance Manager D. OnCommand Insight Answer: A
The cluster ha modify-configured true command will trigger which two actions? (Choose two.) A. The ability for the nodes in an HA pair to execute an auto-giveback. B. The ability for the hosts connected to a node to failover to another HA pair. C. The storage can failover from one node to the other. D. SVM failover from any node in the cluster to any other node. Answer: B,C
Which two must already exist before creating a subnet? (Choose two.) A. storage virtual machine B. failover group C. broadcast domain D. IPspace Answer: C,D
Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM? A. FTP B. CIFS C. HTTP D. TFTP Answer: B
Why would you use NetApp Snapshots? A. for data protection B. to increase performance C. for network resiliency D. for storage failover Answer: A
A customer created a volume with the wrong language code. What should a customer do to correct this problem? A. Delete the volume and create a volume with the correct language code. B. Take the volume offline and change the language code. C. Change the language code on the volume. D. Change the language code on the parent storage virtual machine. Answer: A
Which type of connectivity is supported when connecting third-party arrays through FlexArray Virtualization for back-end storage to a NetApp cluster? A. iSCSI B. SAS C. FC D. Infiniband Answer: C
What are two FPolicy methods for applications? (Choose two.) A. asynchronous B. semi-synchronous C. direct D. synchronous Answer: A,D
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Share some Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge500-265 exam questions and answers below. In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component? A. management and intelligence capabilities B. Cisco security platforms C. third-party applications D. security intelligence operations Answer: B
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.) A. Content Security B. Cloud Security C. Network Security D. Access Security E. Data Center Security F. Internet Security G. Advanced Malware Protection Answer: A,C,D
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.) A. BYOD B. Wi-Fi connections C. partial URL and application blocking D. third-party applications E. web and email attacks F. a large number of remote employees Answer: A,F
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.) A. fragmented solutions B. the lack of management solutions C. missing components D. solutions being pieced together E. the lack of a cloud solution F. the lack of a firewall G. security gaps Answer: A,D,G
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Share some CCDP 300-320 exam questions and answers below. Which two modes does LACP support? (Choose two.) A. on B. passive C. associated D. link Answer: A, B
What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses? A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.252.0 C. 255.255.255.252 D. 255.255.255.240 Answer: C
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network? A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm B. Johnson's algorithm C. Dijkstra's algorithm D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm Answer: C
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network? A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm B. Johnson's algorithm C. Dijkstra's algorithm D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm Answer: C
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching? A. ATM B. ISP MPLS VPN C. VTI D. VPLS Answer: A
Which router type injects external LSAs into the OSPF database using either other routing protocols or static routes? A. backbone router B. ABR C. internal router D. internal router E. ASBR Answer: E
What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device? A. denies the client network resource access B. repairs the effected devices C. generates a Syslog message D. permits the client but limits to guest access Answer: A
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. Answer: B
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Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two) A. feature vtp B. vtp client mode C. vtp VLAN D. vtp version E. vtp static Answer: A,D
Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two) A. services layer B. high-speed packet switching O repeater C. access control D. QoS marking Answer: AC
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) A. Virtual Port Channel B. Layer 3 C. Virtual Device Contexts D. iSCSI E. Fibre Channel Answer: BC
What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination? A. transport B. network C. application D. presentation Answer: B
Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? A. shielded twisted-pair cable B. coaxial cable C. multimode fiber-optic cable D. single-mode fiber-optic cable Answer: C
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An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? A. Cisco Quality Report Tool B. System Log Management C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting D. Cisco JTAPI Answer: A
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications? A. Select the "?" button on the IP phone. B. Select the globe button on the IP phone. C. Select Settings > User Preferences. D. Select Settings > Device Configuration. Answer: B
Which two protocols does Jabber use to achieve Presence status? (Choose two.) A. SIP/SIMPLE B. XMPP C. SCCP D. MGCP E. SOAP Answer: A,B
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of their Cisco cluster? A. RTMT B. Cisco AXL Toolkit C. Cisco CTL Client D. Cisco JTAPI E. Cisco TAPS Answer: A
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers? A. Alternate Extension B. Notification Devices C. Alternate Names D. Message Settings E. Caller Input F. Mailbox Answer: A
Which scenario allows user A in partition X to call user B in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. User B in partition X is not assigned to any CSS. B. User B in partition Y assigns both partitions to CSS-X. C. User B is not assigned to any partition or CSS. D. User B is assigned to partition Y and assigns to CSS-X. Answer: B
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns? A. CAR report B. QoS by Gateway C. QoS by call types D. Traffic summary E. Traffic summary by extension Answer: D
Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server? A. SIP trunk B. H.323 gateway C. Gatekeeper D. MGCP gateway E. Cisco Unified Border Element Answer: A
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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below. Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2? A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2 debug ppp authentication B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2 debug ppp authentication C. debug int s0/1 debug int 0/2 debug ppp authentication D. Debug condition interface s0/1 Debug condition interface s0/2 debug ppp authentication Answer: D
Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped. What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately) A. MTU does not match B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡± E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination Answer: C
R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) A. They are not neighbors B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA E. R2 should be configured as stub Answer: BC
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: C
The tunnel between R1 and R3 is not coming up. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Topology with a GRE tunnel and the outputs provided are show ip int brief and tunnel source and destination) A. Tunnel source int Eth0/0 is down B. No route from R1 to R3 loopback0 (tunnel destination) C. source and destination not in same subnet D. http://bbs.hh010.com/ Answer: AB
What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel? A. 1630 B. 1476 C. 1500 D. 1900 Answer: B
Ticket 5 R1ACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. Configuration on R1 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 description link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip access-group edge_security in ip nat outside ip virtual-reassembly ntp brasdcast client net broadcast key 1 no cdp enable !! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any
On which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IP DHCP Server C. IPv4 OSPF Routing D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing E. IPv4 Route Redistribution F. IPv6 RIP Routing G. IPv6 OSPF Routing H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability I. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
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